已知z=sin(xy),求dz-搜答案-神马作文网

我来试试吧...z=e^xy*cos(x+y)Z'x=ye^xycos(x+y)-e^xysin(x+y)Z'y=xe^xycos(x+y)-e^xysin(x+y)故dZ=[ye^xycos(x+y

dz=（∂z/∂x）dx+（∂z/∂y）dyxy+yz+xz-1=0设g（x,y,z）=xy+yz+xz-1　　∂g/∂x=y+

先对x求导y*dz/dx+z+x*dz/dx+y=0所以dz/dx=-(z+y)/(x+y)同理得dz/dy=-(z+x)/(x+y)所以dz=-(z+y)/(x+y)dx-(z+x)/(x+y)dy

两边同时微分zdx+xdz+zdy+ydz+xdy+ydx=0(x+y)dz+(y+z)dx+(z+x)dy=0dz=-[(y+z)dx+(z+x)dy]/(x+y)

dz/dx=arctan(xy)+xy/[1+(xy)^2](dz/dx)|(1,1)=π/4+1/2(dz/dy)|(1,1)=x^2/[1+(xy)^2]=1/2

dz=d(xyln(xy))=xyd(ln(xy))+ln(xy)d(xy)=xyd(xy)/(xy)+ln(xy)d(xy)=d(xy)+ln(xy)d(xy)=(1+ln(xy))d(xy)=(1

(y^2+2xy-cos(y+z))/(e^z+cos(y+z))再问：没有过程吗？再答：求导：e^z*dz-y^2-2xy+cos(y+z)(1+dz)=0把含有dz的项移到一起：(e^z+cos(

z=(x+y)^2*cos(x^2*y^2)dz/dx=2*(x+y)*cos(x^2*y^2)-2*(x+y)^2*sin(x^2*y^2)*x*y^2dz/dy=2*(x+y)*cos(x^2*y

因为x、y都为自变量,不是宗量,故此题没有全微分,应只有偏微分.详解如下：对方程两边微分：左边：de^z=e^z*dz右边d[xyz+cos(xy)]=xydz+yzdx+xzdy-(sinxy)*(

z=arctan(x*e^x)z'={1/[1+(x*e^x)^2]}*(x*e^x)'(x*e^x)'=x'*e^x+x*(e^x)'=e^x+x*e^x=(x+1)*e^x所以dz/dx=(x+1

∂z/∂x=cos(x-y)∂z/∂y=-cos(x-y)dz=∂z/∂x*dx+∂z/∂y*dy=co

先对x求偏导数得z'(x)cosz=yz+z'(x)y所以z'(x)=yz/(cosz-y)同理对y求偏导数得z'(y)=xz/(cosz-x)所以dz=yz/(cosz-y)dx+xz/(cosz-

全微分啊dz=(1+xy)^x[ln(1+xy)+xy/(1+xy)]dx+(1+xy)^xx^2/(1+xy)dy

再问：可以再帮我答题吗，我这边有很多财富值可以给你再问：

说明：eu应该是e的x次幂,dz/dx,dz/dy应该是偏导数.∵v=xy,u=x2-y2∴du/dx=2x,du/dy=-2y,dv/dx=y,dv/dy=x∵z=ln(e^u+v),∴dz/dx=

u=x^2+y∂u/∂x=2x∂u/∂y=1du=(∂u/∂x)dx+(∂u/∂y)dy=2xdx+dy

设Z=x²+2xy,求dz

z=x^2+2xy两边同时求导数,得到：dz=2xdx+2ydx+2xdy即：dz=2(x+y)dx+2xdy.

再问：就是这个吗？再答：是的。如还有不懂请追问，懂了请采纳。再问：还有这三题